A few weeks ago the Wikipedia article was posted on lemmy. I too unfortunately don’t remember the name.

Not sure about this. However if this was the case, income would be a pretty useless term in terms of describing financial inequality, as a lot of wealth gained would be excluded by this definition.

But I think this is only about wages right? It doesn’t take into account growth in net worth based on shares, does it?

deleted by creator

A lot of woman would prefer to be alone with a beer than with a man.